Does Mark 15:23, Matthew 27:48, Luke 23:36, John 19:29-30 Contradict?

This is a challenging debunking, not because it is necessarily hard, but more of it is hard to explain. So, let us try to jump into this. First of all, before we read the verse I need to clarify something. In many translations, "sour wine" is translated as vinegar. The original word, "ὄξους" can mean both, but it is more commonly translated as sour wine so this is what we will be using. Now to the verses.

"Immediately one of them ran, and taking a sponge, he filled it with sour wine and put it on a reed, and gave Him a drink" (Matthew 27:48 NASB1995).

"They tried to give Him wine mixed with myrrh; but He did not take it" (Mark 15:23).

"The soldiers also mocked Him, coming up to Him, offering Him sour wine" (Luke 23:36 NASB1995).

"A jar full of sour wine was standing there; so they put a sponge full of the sour wine upon a branch of hyssop and brought it up to His mouth. Therefore when Jesus had received the sour wine, He said, “It is finished!” And He bowed His head and gave up His spirit" (John 19:29-30 NASB1995).

These verses certainly sound contradictory, but today we will take them down. So three of the four verses claim sour wine was provided while in Mark, it was myrrh. So, is there a contradiction? Nope. What if, instead of them being overlapping, instead, they occur at separate times. Clearly Matthew, Luke, and John all agree he was offered wine, so what if Mark occurred at a separate time? Well, guess what, it is true. Note in Mark that he is being offered a drink with myrrh before the crucifixion as in the next verses this is said, "24And when they had crucified him, they parted his garments, casting lots upon them, what every man should take. 25 And it was the third hour, and they crucified him" (Mark 15:24-25KJV). Keep in mind the verse where he was offered wine with myrrh was in verse 23, so clearly, this event happened before the crucifixition.

To further the fact he was offered wine twice, later in Mark, in the same chapter, this occurs! "Someone ran and filled a sponge with sour wine, put it on a reed, and gave Him a drink, saying, “Let us see whether Elijah will come to take Him down'" (Mark 15:36 NASB1995).

So, this confirms there were two different occurrences. So Mark does not contradict Luke or Matthew. Now for John. While Mark 15:36, Luke 23:36, and Matthew 27:48 claim he either didn't drink or there is no information claiming he did, John seems to think he did, or does he? As we know, received means to be given something or to receive something, just because someone was given something doesn't equate to them accepting it.

For example, if someone received a pamphlet for a new car company, the person doesn't have to go or even read it for that matter.

So no, the verse in John doesn't prove he drank the offered wine.

So in conclusion there is no contradiction.

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